| Board | CBSE |
| Textbook | NCERT |
| Class | Class 12 |
| Subject | Informative Practices (IP) |
| Chapter | MCQ Based questions for CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies |
| Chapter Name | Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies |
| Category | CUET (Common University Entrance Test) UG |
Practice MCQ Based questions for CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies
This page is created by HT experts and consists of MCQ-based questions with detailed explanations for CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies. All the important concepts of Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies for the CUET entrance exam are covered by MCQ questions with detailed explanations. Do solve chapter-wise MCQ questions for CUET Computer Science and CUET IP prepared by experts.
MCQ Based questions for CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies Set-A
Informatics Practices - MCQ on Advanced Database Technologies
Class XII
Q.1 Representation of a group of objects that share common properties and behaviour is known as
(a) section.
(b) class.
(c) information.
(d) data.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: In object-oriented programming, a class is a programming language construct that is used as a blueprint to create objects.
Q.2 Database about data and database structure is known as
(a) data mining.
(b) data warehouse.
(c) data dictionary.
(d) meta data.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A data dictionary is a "centralized repository of information about data such as meaning, relationships to other data, origin, usage, and format."
Q.3 Extraction of hidden predictive information patterns from large databases is known as
(a) data mining.
(b) data warehouse.
(c) data dictionary.
(d) meta data.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Data mining is the process of extracting hidden patterns from data.
Q.4 Centralized data repository that stores and provides already transformed and summarized data is known as
(a) data mining.
(b) data warehouse.
(c) data dictionary.
(d) meta data.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Data warehouse is a repository of an organization's electronically stored data. Data warehouses are designed to facilitate reporting and analysis.
Q.5 The client application, which is itself responsible for its processing power and application logic, is known as
(a) super client.
(b) sub client.
(c) fat client.
(d) red client.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A fat client or rich client is a computer (client) in client-server architecture networks, which typically provides rich functionality independently of the central server.
Q.6 Information describing model and definition of source data is known as
(a) data dictionary.
(b) vital data.
(c) super data.
(d) meta data.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: Metadata is "data about other data", of any sort in any media.
Q.7 An identifiable entity with some characteristics and behaviour, is known as a
(a) class.
(b) object.
(c) data.
(d) client.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: An object commonly means a data structure consisting of data fields and procedures (methods) that can manipulate those fields.
Q.8 The client application that does not have much of processing power, is known as
(a) fat client.
(b) thin client.
(c) weak client.
(d) strong client.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: A thin client is a client computer or client software in client-server architecture networks, which depends primarily on the central server for processing activities, and mainly focuses on conveying input and output between the user and the remote server.
Q.9 UML stands for
(a) Unified Module Language.
(b) Unique Manipulation Language.
(c) Unified Manipulation Language.
(d) Unique Module Language.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: UML stands for Unified Modelling Language. It is an open and industry standard visual modelling language for OO systems.
Q.10 An open and industry standard visual modelling language for OO systems is known as
(a) RML.
(b) XML.
(c) VB.
(d) UML.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: UML stands for Unified Modelling Language. It is an open and industry standard visual modelling language for OO systems.
Q.11 The characteristics of data warehouse are
(a) subject oriented, integrated, time variant and non volatile.
(b) subject oriented, integrated, time variant and volatile.
(c) subject oriented, integrated, time invariant and non volatile.
(d) subject oriented, integrated, time invariant and volatile.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Data warehouses are designed to facilitate reporting and analysis.
The characteristics of data warehouse are subject oriented, integrated, time variant and non-volatile.
Q.12 To extract previously unknown and hidden but predictive information, data mining uses a technique called
(a) warehousing.
(b) modelling.
(c) UML.
(d) sorting.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Modelling is the act of building a model on one situation where one knows the answer and then applying it to another situation where answer is not known.
Q.13 The act of building a model on one situation where one knows the answer and then applying it to another situation where answer is not known, is known as
a) warehousing.
b) modelling.
c) UML.
d) sorting.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: To extract previously unknown and hidden but predictive information, data mining uses a technique called modelling.
Q.14 The four techniques used for data mining are
(a) decision trees, rule induction, genetic algorithms, timing diagram.
(b) decision trees, rule induction, communication diagrams, artificial neural networks.
(c) decision trees, rule induction, genetic algorithms, artificial neural networks.
(d) decision trees, association, genetic algorithms, artificial neural networks.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: The most commonly used techniques in data mining are: Artificial neural networks, decision trees, genetic algorithms, nearest neighbour method, rule induction.
Q.15 Building models and performing activities so that all this leads up to the deployment of a good OO system, is known as
(a) subject modelling.
(b) object modelling.
(c) class modelling.
(d) sequence modelling.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Object Modelling Language is a modelling language based on a standardized set of symbols and ways of arranging them to model an object oriented software design or system design.
Q.16 The object oriented approach deals in terms of
(a) objects.
(b) procedures.
(c) objects and procedures.
(d) patterns.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: The object oriented approach deals in terms of objects and traditional approach deals with procedures.
Q.17 The graphical representation of a model of a system is
(a) DFD diagram.
(b) ERP diagram.
(c) UML diagram.
(d) XML diagram.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a standardized general-purpose modeling language in the field of software engineering.
Q.18 Each UML diagram consists of
(a) squares and circles.
(b) rows and columns.
(c) nodes and arcs.
(d) tables.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Each UML diagram consists of a set of nodes and arcs, where the nodes represent the model elements and the arcs represent relationships between the model elements.
Q.19 The UML diagram that shows actors, use-cases, and the relationships between them, is known as
(a) class diagram.
(b) interaction diagram.
(c) deployment diagram.
(d) use-case diagram.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: In software engineering, a use case diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of behavioural diagram defined by and created from a Use-case analysis.
Q.20 The UML diagram that shows the relationship between classes and pertinent information about classes themselves is known as
(a) use-case diagram.
(b) class diagram.
(c) timing diagram.
(d) communication diagram.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: A class diagram is an illustration of the relationships and source code dependencies among classes in the Unified Modeling Language (UML).
Q.21 The UML diagram that shows a configuration of objects at an instant in time, is known as
(a) component diagram.
(b) deployment diagram.
(c) activity diagram.
(d) object diagram.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation:An object diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML), is a diagram that shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time.
Q.22 The UML diagram that shows the interaction between a group of collaborating objects, is known as
(a) package diagram.
(b) state diagram.
(c) activity diagram.
(d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation:Interaction diagrams, a subset of behavior diagrams, emphasize the flow of control and data among the things in the system being modelled.
Q.23 The UML diagram that shows system structure at the library level is
(a) package diagram.
(b) state diagram.
(c) activity diagram.
(d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: A package diagram in the Unified Modeling Language depicts the dependencies between the packages that make up a model.
Q.24 The UML diagram that describes the behaviour of instances of a class in terms of states, stimuli, and transitions is known as
(a) package diagram.
(b) state diagram.
(c) activity diagram.
(d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: State diagram displays the sequences of states that an object of an interaction goes through during its life in response to received stimuli, together with its responses and actions.
Q.25 The UML diagram that shows actions and decision points, but with the ability to accommodate currency, is known as
a) package diagram.
b) state diagram.
c) activity diagram.
d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Activity diagrams are a loosely defined diagram technique for showing workflows of stepwise activities and actions, with support for choice, iteration and concurrency.
Q.26 The UML diagram that shows the configuration of hardware and software in a distributed system is known as
a) package diagram.
b) state diagram.
c) deployment diagram.
d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A deployment diagram in the Unified Modeling Language serves to model the physical deployment of artifacts on deployment targets.
Q.27 The UML diagram that models the flow of logic within the system in a visual manner is known as
a) package diagram.
b) sequence diagram.
c) deployment diagram.
d) interaction diagram.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: A sequence diagram in Unified Modelling Language (UML) is a kind of interaction diagram that shows how processes operate with one another and in what order.
Q.28 The UML diagram that depicts how a software system is split up into physical components and shows the dependencies among these components is known as
a) package diagram.
b) sequence diagram.
c) deployment diagram.
d) component diagram.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: A component diagram in the Unified Modeling Language depicts how components are wired together to form larger components of software systems.
Q.29 The UML diagram that shows the internal structure of a class and the collaborations that this structure makes possible, is known as
a) composite structure diagram.
b) sequence diagram.
c) deployment diagram.
d) component diagram.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Composite structure diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of static structure diagram that shows the internal structure of a class and the collaborations that this structure makes possible.
Q.30 The UML diagram used to explore the behaviour of one or more objects throughout a given period of time, is known as
a) composite structure diagram.
b) sequence diagram.
c) timing diagram.
d) component diagram.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Timing diagrams are used to explore the behaviours of objects throughout a given period of time. A timing diagram is a special form of a sequence diagram.
CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies Set-B
Q.31 The UML diagram that shows the message flow between objects in OO (Object Oriented) application and also imply the basic associations between classes is known as
a) composite structure diagram.
b) sequence diagram.
c) timing diagram.
d) communication diagram.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation:A Communication diagram models the interactions between objects or parts in terms of sequenced messages. Communication diagrams represent a combination of information taken from class, sequence, and use case diagrams describing both the static structure and dynamic behavior of a system.
Q.32 The number of relationships in UML class diagrams is
a) two.
b) three.
c) four.
d) five.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: These three relationships are: association, aggregation and generalization.
Q.33 The term that depicts a relationship between instances of two classes is known as
a) association.
b) aggregation.
c) generalization.
d) specialization.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Association represents the ability of one instance to send a message to another instance. It is shown as a link connecting two classes.
Q.34 Association is shown as a link
a) with a diamond end.
b) having a triangle pointing to super class.
c) connecting two classes.
d) with a circle.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Association represents the ability of one instance to send a message to another instance. It is shown as a link connecting two classes.
Q.35 The term that depicts an association in which one class belongs to a collection is
a) aggregation.
b) generalization.
c) specialization.
d) summarization.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Aggregation is a special kind of association that specifies a whole/part relationship between the aggregate (whole) and a component part.
Q.36 Aggregation is shown as a link
a) with a diamond end.
b) having a triangle pointing to super class.
c) connecting two classes.
d) with a circle.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Aggregation is a special kind of association that specifies a whole/part relationship between the aggregate (whole) and a component part. It is shown with a link with a diamond end.
Q.37 The term which depicts link between a super class and a sub class is known as
a) aggregation.
b) generalization.
c) specialization.
d) summarization.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: In UML modelling, a generalization relationship is a relationship in which one model element (the child) is based on another model element (the parent). Generalization relationships are used in class, component, deployment, and use case diagrams.
Q.38 Generalization is shown as a link
a) with a diamond end.
b) having a triangle pointing to super class.
c) connecting two classes.
d) with a circle.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation:In UML modelling, a generalization relationship is a relationship in which one model element (the child) is based on another model element (the parent). It is shown with a link having a triangle pointing to super class.
Q.39 The two important components of client/server computing are
a) nodes and arcs.
b) fat client and thin client.
c) objects and classes.
d) client and server.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: Client-server computing or networking is distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or work loads between service providers (servers) and service requesters, called clients.
Q.40 The type of computing where the requests are made at one end and the services are provided at another end is known as
a) distributed computing.
b) parallel computing.
c) client/server computing.
d) grid computing.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Client-server computing or networking is distributed application architecture that partitions tasks or work loads between service providers (servers) and service requesters, called clients.
Q.41 A requester of services is known as
a) server.
b) client.
c) middleware.
d) endware.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: A client is an application or system that accesses a remote service on another computer system, known as a server, by way of a network.
Q.42 A provider of services is known as
a) server.
b) client.
c) middleware.
d) endware.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: A server is any combination of hardware or software designed to provide services to clients.
Q.43 OMT stands for
a) Object Manipulation Technique.
b) Oval Modelling Technique.
c) Object Oriented Modelling Technique.
d) Object Manual Technique.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: The object oriented modelling technique (OMT) is an object modelling language for software modelling and designing.
Q.44 OOAD stands for
a) Object Oriented Analysis And Design.
b) Object Oriented Activity And Design.
c) Object Oriented Analysis And Development.
d) Object Oriented Action And Design.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Object-oriented analysis and design (OOAD) is a software engineering approach that models a system as a group of interacting objects.
Q.45 DSS stands for
a) Development Section System.
b) Decision Support System.
c) Department Sample System.
d) Development Sample System.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation:Decision support systems (DSS) constitute a class of computer-based information systems including knowledge-based systems that support decision-making activities.
Q.46 EIS stands for
a) Executive Information System.
b) Elevated International System.
c) Executive Information System.
d) Elated Informatics Systems.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: An Executive Information System (EIS) is a type of management information system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting the strategic goals of the organization.
Q.47 The author of Building the data warehouse is
a) Bill Gates.
b) Bill Nuts.
c) Bill Inmon.
d) Bill Shawn.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Bill Inmon, world-renowned expert, speaker and author on data warehousing, is widely recognized as the "father of data warehousing."
Q.48 When the data is organized according to subject instead of application, it is known as
a) system ineffective.
b) application based.
c) application oriented.
d) subject oriented.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: The ability to define a data warehouse by subject matter makes the data warehouse subject oriented.
Q.49 The data organized by subject contain only the information necessary for
a) EIS.
b) DSS.
c) MIS.
d) GIS.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Decision support systems (DSS) constitute a class of computer-based information systems including knowledge-based systems that support decision-making activities.
Q.50 OLTP stands for
a) On-Line Transaction Processing.
b) Outlanding Large Topology Processing.
c) Outlook Time Processing.
d) Off-Line Terminating Post-System.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Online transaction processing, or OLTP, refers to a class of systems that facilitate and manage transaction-oriented applications, typically for data entry and retrieval transaction processing.
CUET Information practice (IP) Chapter 13 Advanced Database Technologies Set-C
Q.51 The correct order of steps followed in creating and developing data warehouse is
a) retrieve and transform data, cleanse data, transfer data into data warehouse, insulate operational information.
b) insulate operational information, retrieve and transform data, cleanse data, transfer data into data warehouse.
c) retrieve and transform data, transfer data into data warehouse, insulate operational information, cleanse data.
d) cleanse data, retrieve and transform data, transfer data into data warehouse, insulate operational information.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: The first phase in data warehousing is to insulate operational information, the second is to retrieve data from a variety of heterogeneous operational databases, then comes data cleansing and finally transfer data into data warehouse.
Q.52 The term which is defined as data about data is
a) source data.
b) data dictionary.
c) metadata.
d) duplicate data.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Information describing model and definition of source data is known as metadata.
Q.53 The most elementary unit of data that can be identified and described in a dictionary, which cannot be subdivided, is known as
a) data bit.
b) data entry.
c) data atom.
d) data element.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: A data element name is a name given to a data element in, for example, a data dictionary or metadata registry.
Q.54 Analytical data stores that are designed to focus on specific business functions for a specific community within an organization is known as
a) data dictionary.
b) meta data.
c) data marts.
d) sub-data.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A data mart is a subset of an organizational data store, usually oriented to a specific purpose or major data subject, that may be distributed to support business needs.
Q.55 SMP stands for
a) Simple Main Processor.
b) Standard Multiprocessing.
c) Symmetric Multiprocessing.
d) Stimulated Multiprocessing.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: In computing, symmetric multiprocessing or SMP involves a multiprocessor computer architecture where two or more identical processors can connect to a single shared main memory.
Q.56 MPP stands for
a) Manipulated Parallel Processing.
b) Matching Post Production.
c) Massively Parallel Processing.
d) Marinated Practise Production.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation:Massive parallel processing (MPP) is a term used in computer architecture to refer to a computer system with many independent arithmetic units or entire microprocessors that run in parallel.
Q.57 Data warehouses are interested in
a) query processing.
b) transaction processing.
c) quick processing.
d) control processing.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Data warehouses are interested in query processing as opposed to transaction processing, which is for OLTP.
Q.58 The purpose of OLTP is
a) to run day-to-day operations.
b) information retrieval and analysis.
c) data storage.
d) creating tables.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: OLTP (Online transaction processing system) is a traditional term used for transaction system used to carry out day-to-day business functions such as ERP, CRM, etc.
Q.59 The purpose of data warehouse is
a) to run day-to-day operations.
b) information retrieval and analysis.
c) data crash.
d) creating tables.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Data warehouse is a repository of an organization's electronically stored data. Data warehouses are designed to facilitate reporting and analysis.
Q.60 The structure used in OLTP is
a) SQL.
b) SQL plus data analysis extensions.
c) RDBMS.
d) Descriptive.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: The structure used in OLTP is RDBMS whereas the access is through SQL.
Q.62 The non-linear predictive models that learn through training and resemble biological neural networks in structure is
a) decision trees.
b) genetic algorithms.
c) artificial neutral networks.
d) rule induction.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: An artificial neural network (ANN), usually called "neural network" (NN), is a mathematical model or computational model that tries to simulate the structure and/or functional aspects of biological neural networks.
Q.63 ANN stands for
a) Automated Null Network.
b) Aerated Neutral Network.
c) Artificial Neural Network.
d) Active Natural Network.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: An artificial neural network (ANN), usually called "neural network" (NN), is a mathematical model or computational model that tries to simulate the structure and/or functional aspects of biological neural networks.
Q.64 Tree-shaped structures that represent sets of decisions is known as
a) direction tree.
b) option tree.
c) decision tree.
d) root tree.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A decision tree (or tree diagram) is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
Q.65 Optimization techniques that use processes such as genetic combination, mutation and natural selection in a design based on the concepts of evolution, is known as
a) decision trees.
b) genetic algorithms.
c) artificial neutral networks.
d) rule induction.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: A genetic algorithm (GA) is a search technique used in computing to find exact or approximate solutions to optimization and search problems.
Q.66 A technique that classifies each record in a dataset based on a combination of the classes of the k-record most similar to it in a historical dataset, is known as
a) nearest neighbour method.
b) genetic algorithms.
c) artificial neutral networks.
d) rule induction.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: k-nearest neighbour algorithm (k-NN) is a method for classifying objects based on closest training examples in the feature space. k-NN is a type of instance-based learning, or lazy learning where the function is only approximated locally and all computation is deferred until classification.
Q.67 The extraction of useful if-then rules from data based on statistical significance, is known as
a) nearest neighbour method.
b) genetic algorithms.
c) artificial neutral networks.
d) rule induction.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation:Rule induction is an area of machine learning in which formal rules are extracted from a set of observations. The rules extracted may represent a full scientific model of the data, or merely represent local patterns in the data.
Q.68 The term which refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details is known as
a) encapsulation.
b) data abstraction.
c) polymorphism.
d) data hiding.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: In computer science, the mechanism and practice of abstraction reduce and factor out details so that one can focus on a few concepts at a time.
Q.69 The wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit is known as
a) encapsulation.
b) data abstraction.
c) polymorphism.
d) data hiding.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Encapsulation is the inclusion of one thing within another thing so that the included thing is not apparent.
Q.70 The number of types of models involved with OMT is
a) two.
b) three.
c) four.
d) five.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: The three types of models are: class model, dynamic model and functional model.
Q.71 Class model is known as
a) data oriented model.
b) action oriented model.
c) dynamic model.
d) functional model.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: Class model is also known as data oriented model. This model determines the static structure of the system.
Q.72 The model that determines the static structure of the system is known as
a) class model.
b) action oriented model.
c) dynamic model.
d) functional model.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: The class model shows static class objects in a system and the relationships between them.
Q.73 Dynamic model is also known as
a) data oriented model.
b) action oriented model.
c) class model.
d) functional model.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: Dynamic model is also known as action oriented model. This model determines the behavioural aspects of the system.
Q.74 The model that determines the behavioural aspects of the system is known as
a) data oriented model.
b) dynamic model.
c) class model.
d) functional model.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: The dynamic model is used to express and model the behaviour of the system over time. It includes support for activity diagrams, state diagrams, sequence diagrams and extensions including business process modelling.
Q.75 The model that determines the data transformations that take place in the system is known as
a) data oriented model.
b) dynamic model.
c) class model.
d) functional model.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: The functional model handles the process perspective of the model, corresponding roughly to data flow diagrams. Main concepts are process, data store, data flow, and actors.
Q.76 In use case diagram, an example of what happens when someone interacts with the system, is known as
a) actor.
b) role player.
c) scenario.
d) integrator.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: A use case is a summary of scenarios for a single task or goal. Use case diagrams are closely connected to scenarios. A scenario is an example of what happens when someone interacts with the system.
Q.77 In use case diagrams, the role that people or objects play is known as
a) actor.
b) role player.
c) scenario.
d) integrator.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: An actor is who or what initiates the events involved in that task.
Q.78 Class diagrams are
a) dynamic.
b) sub dynamic.
c) static
d) super static.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Class diagrams are static, i.e., they display what interacts but not what happens when they do interact.
Q.79 The number of possible instances of the class associated with a single instance of the other end is known as
a) additive nature of an association.
b) subtractive nature of an association.
c) multiplicity of an association.
d) division of an association.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: The concept of multiplicity in UML derives from that of cardinality in entity-relationship modelling techniques.
Q.80 The multiplicity 0.1 denotes
a) zero or one instance.
b) no limit on the number of instances.
c) exactly one instance.
d) at least one instance.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: 0.1 denotes zero or one instance. The notation n.m indicates n to m instances.
Q.81 The multiplicity 0.* denotes
a) zero or one instance.
b) no limit on the number of instances.
c) exactly one instance.
d) at least one instance.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: 0.* or * means no limit on the number of instances (including none).
Q.82 The multiplicity 0.* is equal to
a) 0.1
b) *
c) 1
d) 1.*
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: 0.* or * implies that there is no limit on the number of instances.
Q.83 The multiplicity 1 is equal to
a) zero or one instance.
b) no limit on the number of instances.
c) exactly one instance.
d) at least one instance.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: 1 implies that there is only one instance.
Q.84 The multiplicity 1.* is equal to
a) zero or one instance.
b) no limit on the number of instances.
c) exactly one instance.
d) at least one instance.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: 1.* is equal to atleast one instance whereas 1 implies that there is exactly one instance.
Q.85 CORBA stands for
a) Control Object Release Brand Association.
b) Common Object Request Broker Architecture.
c) Common Oracle Region Broker Architecture.
d) Common Object Request Broker Association.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation:The Common Object Requesting Broker Architecture (CORBA) is a standard defined by the Object Management Group (OMG) that enables software components written in multiple computer languages and running on multiple computers to work together.
Q.86 ORB stands for
a) Object Request Broker.
b) Online Relational Base.
c) Offline Relational Base.
d) Object Release Brand.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation:In distributed computing, an object request broker (ORB) is a piece of middleware software that allows programmers to make program calls from one computer to another via a network.
Q.87 IIOP stands for
a) International Internet Operational Practise.
b) International Intelligence Organization Of Paris.
c) Internet Inter- ORB Protocol.
d) Internet Intra- Optical Protocol.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: IIOP (Internet Inter-ORB Protocol) is a protocol that makes it possible for distributed programs written in different programming languages to communicate over the Internet.
Q.88 HTTP stands for
a) Heterogeneous Time Text Protocol.
b) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol.
c) Heterogeneous Transfer Text Protocol.
d) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-level protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems.
Q.89 An application-level protocol used for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems is known as
a) XML.
b) HTML.
c) HTTP.
d) E-commerce.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-level protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems. Its use for retrieving inter-linked resources led to the establishment of the World Wide Web.
Q.90 A protocol that makes it possible for distributed programs written in different programming languages to communicate over the Internet, is known as
a) IIMP.
b) IIRP.
c) IICP.
d) IIOP.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: IIOP (Internet Inter-ORB Protocol) is a protocol that makes it possible for distributed programs written in different programming languages to communicate over the Internet. IIOP is a critical part of a strategic industry standard, the Common Object Request Broker Architecture (CORBA).
Q.91 A piece of middleware software that allows programmers to make program calls from one computer to another via a network is known as
a) ORB.
b) OSD.
c) OGR.
d) OMR.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: In distributed computing, an object request broker (ORB) is a piece of middleware software that allows programmers to make program calls from one computer to another via a network. ORB’s promote interoperability of distributed object systems because they enable users to build systems by piecing together objects- from different vendors- that communicate with each other via the ORB.
Q.92 A standard defined by the Object Management Group (OMG) that enables software components written in multiple computer languages and running on multiple computers to work together, is known as
a) FERA.
b) CORBA
c) COBRA.
d) REFA.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: CORBA is a mechanism in software for normalizing the method-call semantics between application objects that reside either in the same address space (application) or remote address space (same host, or remote host on a network).
Q.93 A computational model that tries to simulate the structure and/or functional aspects of biological neural networks is known as
a) SNN.
b) GNN.
c) ANN.
d) ZNN.
Answer:
(c)
Explanation: Artificial neural networks are non-linear statistical data modelling tools. They can be used to model complex relationships between inputs and outputs or to find patterns in data.
Q.94 A software engineering approach that models a system as a group of interacting objects is known as
a) Object Oriented Analysis And Design.
b) Object Oriented Activity And Design.
c) Object Oriented Analysis And Development.
d) Object Oriented Action And Design.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: In simple terms, OOAD is the art of designing and building programs for an extended lifetime.
Q.95 A class of computer-based information systems that support decision- making activities is known as
a) Development Section System.
b) Decision Support System.
c) Department Sample System.
d) Development Sample System.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation:Decision Support Systems (DSS) are a specific class of computerized information systems that supports business and organizational decision-making activities.
Q.96 A type of management information system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives, is known as
a) Executive Information System.
b) Elevated International System.
c) Executive Information System.
d) Elated Informatics Systems.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: An Executive Information System (EIS) is a type of management information system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting the strategic goals of the organization.
Q.97 An abstract and conceptual representation of data is known as
a) DFD.
b) tree.
c) graph.
d) ER model.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: Entity-relationship modelling is a database modelling method, used to produce a type of conceptual schema or semantic data model of a system, often a relational database, and its requirements in a top-down fashion.
Q.98 DOMS stands for
a) Distributed Object Management System.
b) Database Oriented Main System.
c) Disc Online Method System.
d) Distributed Oracle Method System.
Answer:
(a)
Explanation: DOMS provide a way of pulling diverse components together and
managing their communications.
Q.99 The system that provides a way of pulling diverse components together and managing their communication is known as
a) DBMS.
b) DOMS.
c) DSQL.
d) RDBMS.
Answer:
(b)
Explanation: DOMS provides a single interface to manage the complexities of a heterogeneous environment.
Q.100 A collection of interrelated data is known as
a) data bit.
b) data system.
c) datum.
d) database.
Answer:
(d)
Explanation: A Database is a collection of information that is organized so that it can easily be accessed, managed, and updated.