CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations

  • Board
    CBSE
  • Textbook
    NCERT
  • Class
    Class 12
  • Subject
    Political Science
  • Chapter
    CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
  • Chapter Name
    Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
  • Category
    CUET (Common University Entrance Test) UG

MCQ-Based Questions for CUET Class 12 Political Science: Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations

This page consists of MCQ-Based Questions for CUET Class 12 Political Science: Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations with a detailed explanation of all the questions. All important questions for CUET Political Science Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations are covered. Find chapter-wise MCQ Questions for CUET Political Science

Find below CUET Political Science: Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations questions set-1

Political Science - MCQ on Regional Aspirations

Class XII

Q.1.Which decade can be seen as a period of rising regional aspirations for autonomy

a. 1970

b. 1980

c. 1990

d. 2000

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: 1980s can be seen as a period of regional aspirations for autonomy.

Q.2.One basic principle of the Indian approach to diversity

a. Right to equality

b. The Indian nation shall not deny the rights of different regions and linguistic groups to retain their culture

c. Right to have expression

d. All of the above

Answer:

(b)

Q.3.Which of the following states is a result of agitation for the formation of linguistic state

a. Andhra Pradesh

b. Karnataka

c. Maharashtra

d. all of these

Answer:

(d)

Q.4.In 1966 which two states were created?

a. Delhi and Haryana

b. Rajasthan and Gujarat

c. Punjab and Haryana

d. Maharashtra and Gujarat

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: the people speaking the Punjabi language started agitations for a separate state for themselves in late 1950s. This demand was finally accepted and the states of Punjab and Haryana were created in 1966.

Q.5.The three social and political regions of Jammu and Kashmir are

a. Jammu, Kashmir & Gilgit

b. Jammu, Kashmir & Ladakh

c. Jammu, Kashmir & Kargil

d. Jammu, Kashmir & Leh

Answer:

(b)

Q.6.Instrument of accession was signed between:

a. Maharaja of Kashmir and Government of India

b. Sheikh Mohammed Abdullah and government of India

c. Maharaja of Kashmir and Pakistan

d. None of these

Answer:

(a)

Q.7.Master Tara Singh was a leader of

a. SGPC

b. AIADMK

c. MDMK

d. PDP

Answer:

(a)

Q.8.The Dravidian movement led to the formation of DK (later DMK) under the leadership of

a. E.V. Ramaswami

b. M. Karunanidhi

c. Annadurai

d. None of these

Answer:

(a)

Q.9.A section of MGP desires that Goa as a Marathi-speaking area should merge with:

a. Madhya Pradesh

b. Goa

c. Maharashtra

d. Manipur

answer:

(c)

Q.10.The first democratic election to the Sikkim assembly in 1974 was swept by

a. Sikkim Congress

b. Indira Congress

c. Janata Party

d. SDF

Answer:

(a)

Q.11. Laldenga was the leader of

a. SDF

b. MNF ( Mizo National Front)

c. Naga council

d. AASU

Answer:

(b)

Q.12.Nagaland state was created in

a. 1980

b. 1960

c. 1950

d. 1970

Answer:

(b)

Q.13.The Government of India carried out Operation Blue Star in

a. June 1981

b. June 1982

c. June 1983

d. June 1984

Answer:

(d)

Q.14.The nature of regional aspirations in Nagaland and Mizoram was

a. Socio-religious identity leading to statehood

b. Linguistic and tensions with centre

c. Regional imbalance leading to demand statehood

d. Secessionist demands on account of tribal identity

Answer:

(d)

Q.15.Goa became a state of the Indian union in

a. 1985

b. 1986

c. 1987

d. 1988

Answer:

(c)

CUET Political Science: Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations questions set-2

Q.16.The following territories were under the colonial rule of Portuguese

a. Goa

b. Diu & Daman

c. Andaman & Nicobar

d. Both a & b

Answer:

(d)

Q.17.The Central government held a special opinion poll in

a. Maharashtra

b. Diu & Daman

c. Goa

d. Puna

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: the central government held a special opinion poll in Goa asking people to decide if they wanted to be a part of Maharashtra or remain separate.

Q.18 Which of the following statements are related to Kazi Lhendup Dorji

Khangsarpa

a. He was a leader of the Democracy Movement in Sikkim

b. He was the founder of Sikkim Praja Mandal

c. He led the movement for the integration of Sikkim in India

d. All the above

Answer:

(d)

Q.18.At the time of independence the following state was a “protectorate” of India

a. Manipur

b. Nagaland

c. Assam

d. Sikkim

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: at the time of independence sikkm was a “protectorate” of India. It meant that while it was a not a part of India it was also not a fully sovereign country.

Q.19.The Sikkim’s monarch, chogyal belonged to

a. Nepali Community

b. Lapca Bhutia Community

c. Hindu Community

d. None

Answer:

(b)

Q.20.The Assam movement is the best example of

a. Movement against government

b. The movement against the domination of Bengalis and other outsiders

c. The movement against terrorist

d. None of these

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: the Assam movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of movement against outsiders.

Q.21.Which government entered into negotiation with the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU)?

a. Indira Gandhi –led government

b. V. P. Singh – led government

c. Rajiv Gandhi – led government

d. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – led government

Answer:

(c)

Explanation: the Rajiv Gandhi government entered into negotiations with the All Assam students’ Union leaders which led to the signing of an accord in 1985.

Q.22.Mizo National Front (MNF) was formed under the leadership of

a. Angami Zapu Phizo

b. Laldenga

c. Kazi Lhendup Dorgi Khangsarpa

d. Master Tara Singh

Answer:

(b)

Explanation: Laldenga was the founder and leader of the Mizo National Front.

Q.24.Which region is referred to as ‘seven sisters’?

a. East-West Region

b. North-West Region

c. South-East Region

d. North-East Region

Answer:

(d)

Explanation: North- East region consists of seven states. so it is referred to as the ‘seven sisters’.

Q.25. Nagaland state was created in the year

a. 1955

b. 1958

c. 1960

d. 1962

Answer:

(c)

Q.26. Issues dominating the politics of North-East are______

a. Demand for autonomy

b. Movements for secession

c. Opposition to outsiders

d. All of the above

Answer:

(d)

Q.27.‘Bodo’ is a community in

a. Manipur

b. Assam

c. Mizoram

d. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer:

(b)

Q.28.Which of these is correct

a. Northeast region is referred to as the seven sisters.

b. The reorganization of the northeast was completed by 1972.

c. Bodos, Karbis And Dimasas are the communities of Arunachal Pradesh.

d. North-east region is connected to the rest of the country through a small corridor of 22 km.

a. A & D

b. B & C

c. A, B & C

d. A, B & D

Answer:

(d)

Q.29.Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were carved out from

a. Rajasthan

b. Punjab

c. Delhi

d. None

Answer:
 

(b)

1 Democratic politics allows parties and groups to address the people on which of the following basis?

a. Regional identity

b. Regional aspiration and specific regional problems

c. Both 1 and 2

d. None of the above

Answer:

(c)

Q.2. Immediately after independence, our nation had to cope with which of the following issues?

a. Partition and displacement

b. Integration of Princely States

c. Reorganisation of states

d. All of the above

Answer:

(d)

Poptical Science - MCQ on Environment and Natural Resources

Class XII

Q.1.Green House effect is concerned with

a. global warming.

b. ozone depletion.

c. cultivation in kitchen garden.

d. increased growth of algae.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - The energy absorbed by sunlight that remains trapped in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gases cause global warming.

Q.2.Ozone hole refers to

a. reduction in the thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere.

b. reduction in ozone thickness in troposphere.

c. hole in the ozone layers in stratosphere.

d. increased concentration of ozone in troposphere.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The ozone layer resides in the stratosphere and surrounds the entire Earth. The ozone "hole" is a reduction in concentration of ozone high above the earth in the stratosphere.

Q.3.Ozone protects the earth

a. from heat of sun responsible for global warming.

b. by filtering out incoming UV rays.

c. by killing microbes in exosphere.

d. as ozone is a pollutant.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - For nearly a billion years, ozone molecules in the atmosphere have protected life on Earth from the effects of ultraviolet rays.

Q.4.In the coming years, skin cancer, nausea and loss of hair are common problems arising due to

a. air pollution.

b. use of detergents.

c. water pollution.

d. depletion of ozone layer.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - If the ozone layer gets depleted, too many UV-B rays will reach the earth's surface, causing health problems like skin cancer and harming plant life.

Q.5.The Montreal Protocol refers to

a. persistent organic pollutants.

b. global warming and climate change.

c. substances that deplete the ozone layer.

d. biosaftey of genetically modified organisms.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The treaty calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities.

Q.6.Kyoto Protocol is the chief instrument for

a. tackling the climate change.

b. upholding the depletion of ozone layer.

c. checking the soil erosion.

d. preserving the water resources.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - Most of the industrialised countries had agreed to reduce their emissions of certain greenhouse gases (which are responsible for global warming) by an average of 5%.

Q.7.Earth Summit 2002 was held in

a. Johannesburg.

b. Rio de Janerio.

c. Kyoto

d. Stockholm.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - The Summit took place in Johannesburg, South Africa from 26 August to 4 September 2002.

Q.8.Van Mahaotsava is festival of

a. planting trees in open areas.

b. taking oath to protect trees.

c. worshipping trees.

d. increasing the productivity of trees.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - It is a festival of planting trees organised every year in the month of July for a whole week all across India where millions of trees are planted.

Q.9.World Forestry Day is celebrated on

a. 12 August.

b. 22 May.

c. 7 April.

d. 21 March.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - The concept of World Forestry Day was originated at the 23rd General Assembly of the European Confederation of Agriculture in 1971.

Q.10.In the developing countries, the heaviest demand on forest is for

a. timber wood.

b. fuel wood.

c. wood for agricultural tools.

d. medicines.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - For the poor in developing countries, both urban and rural, wood is usually the principal source of energy for their basic needs like cooking food. In these countries, an estimate of 86 percent of all the wood consumed annually is used as fuel.

Q.11.The largest rain forest in the world is in

a. Philippines.

b. Indonesia.

c. Amazon basin.

d. Congo basin.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The Amazon rain forest is so vast that its span reaches throughout 9 countries: Brazil, Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Guinea, French Guinea, Peru, Suriname and Venezuela.

Q.12.A natural resource that has inherent capacity to replenish is called

a. renewable resource.

b. non renewable resource.

c. exhaustible resource.

d. inexhaustible resource.

Answer:

a Explanation: - A natural resource that can be used to benefit people and can be enjoyed by other people is called a renewable resource.

Q.13.The largest amount of fresh water on our planet is available to us from

a. lakes and streams.

b. polar icecaps and glaciers.

c. rivers.

d. groundwater.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Groundwater makes up about twenty percent of the world's fresh water supply, which is about 0.61% of the world's water.

Q.14.The main renewable source of energy is

a. cattle.

b. petroleum.

c. biomass.

d. coal.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Renewable energy sources include biomass, geothermal energy, hydropower, solar energy and wind energy. They are called renewable energy sources because they are replenished in a short time.

Q.15.Wildlife conservation means the protection and preservation of

a. wild flora.

b. wild fauna.

c. cultivated plants and domesticated animals.

d. all living things in natural habitats.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Wildlife conservation is the science of analysing and protecting the Earth’s biological diversity, which is the variation of life forms within a given ecosystem or for the entire Earth.

Q.16.First national park developed in India is

a. Gir

b. Kaziranga.

c. Jim Corbett.

d. Kanha.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The first National Park in India was established in 1935, by Jim Corbett as the Hailey National Park, which aimed at the preservation of tigers and other animals and birds.

Q.17.Project Tiger was started in the year

a. 1951.

b. 1963.

c. 1973.

d. 1981.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Project Tiger was launched by the Indian Government. The aim of the project was to control and increase the diminishing population of the Royal Bengal tigers in the country.

Q.18.Pollution is

a. release of toxic substances.

b. cutting down of forest.

c. conservation of energy.

d. removal of top soil.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - Pollution is an undesirable state of the natural environment being contaminated with harmful substances as a consequence of human activities.

Q.19.One of the best method to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is

a. dumping.

b. recycling.

c. burning.

d. burying.

Answer:

b

Explanation:- Recycling involves processed used materials into new products to prevent waste of potentially useful materials.

Q.20.The hole in the Ozone Layer above Antarctica was first discovered in

a. 1890.

b. 1950.

c. 1985.

d. 1995.

Answer:

c

Explanation:- The Antarctic ozone hole was discovered in 1985 by British scientists Joseph Farman, Brian Gardiner and Jonathan Shanklin of the British Antarctic Survey.

Q.21. The harmful rays that are blocked by ozone layer is

a. radio waves.

b) infra red rays.

c) ultra-violet rays.

d) x-rays.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Ozone layer absorbs the harmful UV rays, without the ozone layer our earth would not be able to sustain life. Ozone layer prevents 95% of these dangerous rays from reaching the earth’s surface & thereby protects us from harmful diseases.

Q.22. The name of the agreement made between countries to reduce ozone depletion was

a. Environmental Protection Act.

b) Montreal Protocol.

c. Rio Earth Summit.

d) Common Agricultural Policy.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - The Montreal protocol in 1987 was signed to reduce the impact on the ozone layer. This is an agreement between 191 countries to reduce ozone depleting substances.

Q.23. Antarctica has the world’s largest

a. desert.

b. mountains.

c. volcanoes

d. plateaus.

Answer:

a

Explanation:- It is the world's driest place. It receives less than two inches of precipitation annually.

Q.24. National parks and sanctuaries are established for the purpose of

a. recreation.

b. hunting.

c. pets.

d. conservation.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - A large number of national parks and sanctuaries have been established to conserve the rich variety of wildlife in India.

Q.25. Threatened species are those, which

a. threaten others.

b. are found in the polar regions.

c. are abundant in number.

d. are suffering from the danger of extinction.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Threatened species are thosespecies of animals or plants that are rare and may become an endangered species in the near future.

Q.26. In India, the Energy Electricity Act of 2003, encourages the use of

a. renewable energy.

b. biodegradable waste.

c. biomass.

d. recycling process.

Answer:

a

Explanation:- The most important legislative development, which had induced the recent growth in renewable power, is the “Electricity Act 2003’’ notified in June 2003.

Q.27. SAARC stands for

a. South Arctic Association for Regional Collaboration

b. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.

c. South Asian Association for Regional Collaboration.

d. South Arctic Association for Regional Cooperation.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an economic and political organisation of eight countries in Southern Asia.

Q.28. Poverty is usually passed on from one generation to the next through

a. improper care of natural resources.

b. genetic conditions.

c. the lack of available opportunities.

d. the lack of motivation to change.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Due to the lack of opportunities,poor people do not have adequate means (such as financial capital, education, or housing) to eradicate poverty.

Q.29. The message that the Club of Rome was trying to deliver to the world in 1972 was that

a. nuclear power is the answer to the world's resource limitations.

b. humans were heading on a path to massive environmental degradation and resource exhaustion

c. the decline of global populations will ultimately led to the decrease of environmental problems.

d. world’s natural resources are diminishing.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - The Club of Rome is an international think tank, which became well-known in the early 1970s for its report entitled “The Limits to Growth”. It dramatises the potential depletion of the Earth’s resources against the backdrop of rapidly growing world population.

Q.30. The term “sustainable development” was first brought into common usage by

a. United Nations World Commission on Environment and Development.

b. United Nations Conference on Environment and Economy, held in Rio de Janeiro in June, 1992.

c. United States Forest Service, in the context of sustainable management of forests

d. United States Environmental Protection Agency, in its report Our Common Future.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - The report “Our Common Future” (1987, defined the notion of sustainable development through global cooperation and was a major catalyst for the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.

Q.31. The following is not a greenhouse gas

a. methane.

b. carbon dioxide.

c. water vapor.

d. carbon monoxide.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and ozone.

Q.32. The term “Drought” is defined as

a. a desert region of low rainfall.

b. a time of abnormally low rainfall.

c. a famine condition.

d. lack of water.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - Drought is a long period of abnormally low rainfall, especially one that adversely affects growing or living conditions.

Q.33. The human beings generate the largest amount of carbon dioxide by

a. land clearing.

b. urbanisation.

c. nuclear power generation.

d. burning of fossil fuels.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Human activities such as the combustion of fossil fuels and deforestation have caused the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide to increase manifolds.

Q.34. The following is not a Scandinavian country

a.Estonia.

b. Sweden.

c. Norway.

d. Finland.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - Region in northwestern Europe, comprising Norway, Sweden, Finland, Denmark and Iceland are grouped together because of their historical and cultural affinities.

Q.35. Aggressively building up of nuclear weapons between the United States and Soviet Union is termed as

a. Disarmament.

b. SALT.

c. Arms race.

d. Deterrence.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Arms race describes a competition between two or more parties for military supremacy. Each party competes to produce larger numbers of weapons, superior armies or bigger military technology in a technological growth.

Q.36. The Constitution of India provides for the safeguard of cultural and educational rights of minorities under fundamental rights of Article

a. 20.

b. 21.

c. 29.

d. 30

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The Constitution of India under Article 29 and 30 provides for protecting cultural and educational rights of minorities by ensuring that minorities may preserve their distinctive languages and establish and administer their own education institutions.

Q.37. The best example of global public goods is

a. sea lanes of communications.

b. e-learning companies.

c. private health sectors.

d. insurance sectors.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - Global public goods are unlimited by national boundaries, but cross over into sub-regional, regional and global spheres.

Q.38. The “First World” refers to

a. non-aligned countries.

b. communist countries.

c. dictatorial countries.

d. highly industrialised countries.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - The First World refers to the highly industrialised countries of the world most of which are located in Western Europe, North America, and Japan.

Q.39. The atmosphere is

a. the domain of water.

b. the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth.

c. the domain that provides us forests, grasslands and land for agriculture.

d. the solid crust.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - The atmosphere is the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth. The gravitational force of the earth holds the atmosphere around it.

Q.40. The major cause resulting to the destruction of the Amazon rain forests is the

a. movement of people from rural to urban areas.

b. attempt of native people to end illegal drug trafficking.

c. need for more farmlands .

d. spread of their religion, i.e., Christianity.

Answer:

c

Explanation: Deforestation is used to clear land for farming or habitation. This is done in response to growing populations in such regions as Latin America and Africa.

Q.41. A negative impact of the use of present technology is that

a. levels of air and water pollution often increase.

b. economic opportunities are frequently limited.

c. contacts with other cultures decrease.

d. international trade is limited.

Answer:

a

Explanation: Modern technology can be very damaging to the environment. Many nations are working in collaboration to stop the destruction of the environment by such industry.

Q.42. Oceania is a

a. continent.

b. planet.

c. natural hazard.

d. geographical region.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Oceania is not a continent, but a region. It consists of Australia, the islands of New Zealand and New Guinea and several small Pacific islands and territories.

Q.43. The inhabitant of Micronesian belongs to

a. Canada. b. Oceania region.

c. Scandinavian countries.

d. Gulf countries.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - Micronesia is a sub region of Oceania, comprising thousands of small islands in the western Pacific Ocean.

Q.44. The origin of most Melanesian are

a. Port Moresby.

b. Papua New Guinea.

c. Pacific Island.

d. South Asia.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Most Melanesians are originally from the Pacific island. Exceptions include the people of New Caledonia, from whom one-third are Europeans and the Fiji islands, half of whom are from South Asia.

Q.45. OPEC is the

a. Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Country.

b. Organisation of Pre- European Commission.

c. Oil Producing Economies Caucus.

d. Organisation of Problematic Economies Committee.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - The Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an alliance of twelve countries made up of Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela.

Q.46. Progress that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is

a. the tragedy of global commons.

b. sustainable development.

c. net primary productivity (NPP).

d. the politics of the developed nations.

Answer:

b

Explanation:- Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use that aims to meet human needs while preserving the environment, so that, these needs can be met not only in the present but also for future generations.

Q.47. The greenhouse effect is the phenomenon by which

a. biological diversity is dominant in agricultural production.

b. the globe’s water pollution affects fishes.

c. the earth's atmosphere traps infra red radiation.

d. climatic changes occur naturally in the forest.

Answer:

c

Explanation:- The "greenhouse effect" is an entirely natural phenomenon, which is beneficial to humans and life on earth.

Q.48. The Montreal Protocol, signed in 1987 strengthened in 1990,

a. attains the global optimal level of common property resource.

b. relies on internationally tradable emission permits.

c. minimises free riders of public goods.

d. reduces ozone depletion through the cutting of chlorofluorocarbon

production.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - The Montreal protocol sets limits on the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and related substances that release chlorine or bromine to the ozone layer of the atmosphere.

Q.49. Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 took place because methyl isocyanate reacted with

a. DDT.

b. Ammonia.

c. Carbon dioxide.

d. Water

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Methyl isocyanate reacts with water producing considerable heat plus varying amounts of the chemical products.

Q.50. According to Kyoto Protocol, the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases was by

a. 2008.

b. 2010.

c. 2012.

d. 2018.

Answer:

c

Explanation:- The major feature of the Kyoto Protocol is that it sets binding targets for 37 industrialised countries and the European community for reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. It will reduce the emissions by five per cent over the five-year period 2008-2012.

Q.51. The animal that is the symbol of the World Wide life Fund is

a. Tiger.

b. Panda.

c. Hornbill.

c. White Bear.

Answer:

b

Explanation:- When the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) was founded in 1961, the giant panda was taken as a sign on the WWF flag and emblem, making the giant panda a symbol of the worldwide nature protection.

Q.52. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in

a. 1996.

b. 1992.

c. 2002.

d. 2000.

Answer:

c

Explanation:- The Act provides for conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.

Q.53. Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river

a. Jhelum.

b. Narmada.

c. Tapti.

d. Vyas.

Answer:

b

Explanation:- The Sardar Sarovar is the biggest dam on the Narmada river and its construction has been fiercely opposed.

Q.54. Main cause of extinction of species from tropics is

a. soil erosion.

b. pollution.

c. deforestation.

d. afforestation.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - Forests contain more than half of all species. The habitat of these species is destroyed through deforestation, so the number of species declines.

Q.55. “Van Mahotsav” was started by

a. Pt. Nehru.

b. Sunder Lal Bahguna.

c. Vinobha Bhave.

d. K.M. Munshi.

Answer:

d

Explanation:- K. M. Munshi, then Union Minister for Agriculture and Food, had started Van Mahotsav in 1950 in order to create awareness for the conservation of forests and planting of trees.

Q.56. The General Assembly of UN convened United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (UNCHE) at

a. Stockholm, 1972.

b. Tokyo, 1972.

c. New Delhi, 1972.

d. Paris, 1972

Answer:

a

Explanation: - The Conference deals with the environmental problems in developing countries. It initiates important steps in order to alleviate poverty in the under-developed countries.

Q.57. Appiko movement was led by

a. Kanshi Ram.

b. Sunder Lal Bahguna.

c. Vinobha Bhave.

d. Shri Pandurang Hegde.

Answer:

d

Explanation:- The Appiko movement, started by fiery activist Pandurang Hegde, was inspired by Sunderlal Bahugana’s Chipko movement in U.P. He used the same method of villagers hugging the trees to save them from being felled by the State, which had no laws then against cutting down of timber inside protected areas.

Q.58. The chipko movement was based on the

a. Marxist ideology.

b. Rousseau ideology.

c. Gandhian ideology.

d. Louis Althusser's ideology.

Answer:

c

Explanation:- This movement was based on the Gandhian thought and persuaded that the men and women should not indulge in violence.

Q.59. Smog is a combination of

a. air and water vapours.

b. water and smoke.

c. fire and water.

d. smoke and fog.

Answer:

d

Explanation: - Originally the term ‘smog’ meant a combination of smoke and fog but it is recently referred to a combination of fine particulate matter and ground level ozone.

Q.60. The Chernobyl disaster in the then USSR (now Ukraine) was caused on 26.4.1986 by a

a. nuclear test.

b. nuclear reactor accident.

c. nuclear waste disposal leak.

d. nuclear weapon accident.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - It is considered to be the worst nuclear power plant disaster in history. The Chernobyl accident in 1986 was the result of a flawed reactor design that was operated with inadequately trained personnel.

Q.61. Anxiety and stress are first symptoms caused by

a. noise pollution.

b. radiation pollution.

c. water pollution.

d. air pollution.

Answer:

a

Explanation:- The immediate and acute effect of noise pollution is impairment of hearing. Apart from hearing impairment, the first effects are anxiety and stress reaction and in extreme cases fright.

Q.62. The bomb dropped by USA on Hiroshima was codenamed as

a. Fat man.

b. Little Man.

c. Little Boy.

d. Fat boy.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The nuclear weapon “Little Boy" was dropped on the city of Hiroshima on Monday, August 6, 1945.

Q.63. The National Pollution Prevention Day in India is observed on

a. December 2.

b. October 13.

c. August 12.

d. January 27.

Answer:

a

Explanation: - National Pollution Prevention Day is observed in remembrance of Bhopal Disaster of 1984 that killed thousands of people in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, following the accidental release of 40 tonnes of Methyl Isocyanate (MIC) from Union Carbide Chemical Plant.

Q.64. Water is a resource considered to be the most

a. renewable resource.

b. non renewable resource.

c. degradable but maintainable.

d. non-degradable.

Answer:

a

Explanation:-Water is the main constituent of hydrosphere. It is a renewable resource as it keeps on moving between the three major layers, i.e., lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

Q.65. The Mapuche is one of the indigenous inhabitants of central and southern

a. Bangladesh.

b. Philippines.

c. Chile.

d. Sri Lanka.

Answer:

c

Explanation: - The Mapuche people, who inhabit the central and southern region of Chile, have been historically victims of social and cultural exclusion.

Q.66. The Euphrates river is the source of political tension between

a. Turkey, Iraq and Syria.

b. Iraq, Iran and Syria.

c. Turkey, Iraq and Israel.

d. Israel, Syria and Iraq.

Answer:

a

Explanation:- The river is the source of political tension as Turkey, Syria and Iraq all compete for the use of its waters for irrigation and the generation of hydroelectric power.

Q.67. Iraq War was waged under the presidentship of

a. Bill Clinton.

b. George W. Bush.

c. John F Kennedy.

d. George H.W. Bush.

Answer:

b

Explanation: - On March 19, 2003 President Bush declares war on Iraq and the Iraqi military was quickly defeated. The capital, Baghdad, fell on April 9, 2003. On May 1, Bush declared the end of major combat operations in Iraq.

Download the pdf of MCQ-Based Questions for CUET Class 12 Political Science: Politics in India Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations

CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations
CUET Political Science Chapter 8 Regional Aspirations